S.S. Social Studies Vocab

Term Definition
Basin Sunken area in a plateau between mountain regions
Elevation Height above sea level
Arid Lacking enough water for things to grow
Drought A period of lower than normal precipitation
Erosion The wearing away of Earth’s surface by the movement of water, wind, and ice gravity
Human Geography The study of people and their ways
Physical Geogrphy The study of the land and its features
Vegetation The plant life of a certain area
Climate The general weather pattern of a place over time
Nomads Person who moves from place to place
Culture Traditions, beliefs, language, and arts of a particular group
Indigenous Something native to a particular place
Sedentary Permanently live in one place
Conquistadors Spanish soldier-explorer who sought personal riches and power, as well as wealth and glory for Spain, in the conquest of America
Mutiny A revolt by people against their leaders
Mountains and basins region Area of Texas with low precipitation and high elevation
Great plains Area of Texas with flat grasslands and few trees
North central plains Area of Texas with rolling hills, good soil, and grasslands and forests
Gulf coastal plains Area of Texas that is mostly flat with good soil and many lakes and rivers that drain towards the gulf
Gulf coastal culture Nomadic group of indigenous Texans who were largely fisherman
Plains culture Nomadic group of indigenous Texans who were largely buffalo hunters
Puebloan culture Sedentary group of indigenous Texans who were unsuccessful at farming
Southeastern culture Sedentary group of indigenous Texans who lived in two regions of Texas and relied on the Red River
Pineda Spanish conquistadors who created the first map of the Texas coast
Columbus Italian sent by Spain to find a northwest passage to India
Cortes Spanish conquistador who MOST increased Spain's interest in the Americas by bringing back gold
Coronado Spanish explorer who traveled across Mexico, Texas, Arizona, Mexico, Oklahoma, and Kansas over two years only to find no gold
Cabeza de Vaca Spanish conquistadorwho lived among the indigenous Texans and brought back to Spain stories of gold
La Salle French explorer whose presence in Texas reignited Spanish interest
Spain Country that wanted to expand its empire by sending conquistadors to the new world
France Country seeking land and fur in the new world
Reconquista Nearly 800 year was between the Spanish and the Moors that ended in 1492
Aztec Indigenous people who referred to themselves as "Mexicas" that were completely overtaken by the Spanish
New Spain Spanich colony in present-day Mexico

Nimbus month1 ya

Term Definition
Buss electronically combining many signals into one. can be used to combine 2 or more signals into one track.
Frequency pitch measured in cycles per second (hertz)
Amplitude volume or sound pressure measured in decibels. Can be described as a displacement above or below the centre line
Bed tracks initital recording of instruments
Mixing Polishing tracks
smart tools Selector grabber trimmer
Pre amp amplifier used to boost mic levels to usable line levels
Overdubs Adding to bed tracks
Cue mix Headphone mix created by aux sends on the console, used by talent to hear themselves and communicate with other musicians in the room
Normalled patch point 2 patch points that have been internally connected for convenience.
Bit Depth the number of amplitude possibilities for each sample of audio taken. (6dB of dynamic range per bit)
Nyquist Frequency The highest frequency you can capture at a given sample rate
Phase way of describing the advancement of a waveform through one cycle measured in degrees
Connetions are usually electrical or optical and may be balanced or unbalanced
Cables or connectors can or cant be unbalanced? they cannot be unbalanced the device they hookup to decide that, however they need to meet the minimum requirements for the type of connection that needs to be made
Name 5 cables XLR , TRS, TS, RCA /Phono, S/PDIF, DB-25, BNC, EDAC, DL connector, DIN
Impedance (z) is the resistance of a circuit to a current (audio signal)
Proximity effect the increase of bass frequencies as a directional microphone comes closer to the sound source
Digital audio advantages easier to manipulate/edit, instant access, auto location, recall, high density storage medium, high S/N (quieter / no generation loss), lower cost
Digital disadvantages lacks analog warmth, lower levels = lower quality , high frequencies lack richness
Analog advantages has sonic superiority, frequency response and dynamic range quality is linear
Analog disadvantages lower s/n ratio than digital (noisier), subject to quality loss when copying, tape machines requires more alignment and maintenance, editing is challenging
Sample rate the number of amplitude values we sample per second. increasing sample rate increases the file size of your digital audio.
Aliasing occurs when we dont properly prevent frequencies above the nyquist from entering A/D converter
Truncation Removing the least significant bits, the higher bits then shift down to lower bit levels and the first 4 bits are thrown away.
Simple dithering always happens when you reduce digitalaudio levels but it randomizes truncation point and softens edges.


Question Answer
Optimal contrast timing for dissection Early (15-40 sec)
Late arterial phase (35-40 sec) is good for what Pancreas lesion, necrosis, hcc, hypervascular mets. NOT good for trauma.
what material is used for bronchial artery embo in adults? pva or pledglets — never use coils
what material is used for embolizing pulmonary AVMs? coils!
The arc of riolan connects the SMA and IMA
what to do if collection you drained near bowel still has high output 2 weeks later? abcessogram under fluoro
contraindications to PCN INR >1.5, platelets <50, hyperkalemia (>7),
if you must go intercostal for pcn how do you do it the lower the better (t10/11 better than t9/t10), go above the rib to
posterior calyces appear end on
contraindication to nephroureteral stent can't empty bladder
Tube fell out and it's the first week …what to do need to redo it
how to target pcn 10 cm lateral from midline but not past axillary line (avoid PS muscle and laterally, the colon)
us showing "egyptian eye" gsv
in expiration venous flow from the legs increases
how to eliminate aliasing on us increase scale or switch to lower frequency probe
what type of vessel has plug flow; how will spectral doppler look over 5 mm. no stenosis at all; thin line on spectal with a clear window underneath
Self expanding stents are good for Superficial vessels (SFA, Carotids) and below inguinal ligament, compressible areas (pops back up)
Where to use balloon stents SVC, Renals, more control, less migration
Do you AC patients prior to stenting? Yes!
Clot in renals or gonadal vein where do you put filter Above renal vein
Where to place ivc filter with circumaortic renal vein Go below lowest renal vein
What size ivc = mega cava 28 mm
Birds nest fits ivc up to what size 40 mm
How slow is too slow for graft flow. 600; really bad here b/c they are more predisposed to neointimal hyperplasia
Water hammer pulse is felt ___ above/below stenosis Below
Relative contraindication to fistula repair New (<30 days) or long segment stenosis
How to tell which limb is venous Occlude apex of graft and check for loss of pulsatility in venous limb
Graft occlusion occurs at…, Near graft vein anastomoses on venous side
Fistula stenosis occurs Just distal to the arterial Anastamosis
Goal for fistula repair Improve graft flow 20%, less than 30% residual stenosis
When to stent Bad elastic recoil or had stenosis within 3 months of angioplasty previously
How to chose balloon Should be 20-30% larger than Normal vein adjacent to stenosis
Primary patency Intervention free access survival
Primary assisted patency Thrombosis free survival – maintaining patency
Secondary patency It's clotted and you're trying to save it
How to treat steal syndrome (sx relieved by manual compression of fistula) with a threatened limb Sacrifice fistula
How to treat steal syndrome with low or normal access flow DRIL – open up the sick distal vessel being robbed during HD
How to treat high access flow Band it to reduce flow to fistula
How to treat clotted graft/fistula Maceration with balloon if soft (hard or long– go to surgery)
How to treat pseudoaneurysm of graft/fistula Increasing pain; growth of ten percent per year, skin thinning etc…send to surgery. O/w watch
for lower extremity doppler expiration _____ flow in the legs increases; spectral doppler is above baseline; because expiration relieves pressure on the legs
for upper extremity doppler expiration _____ flow in the arm decreases; because there is no pull on arm veins from the svc as there is in inspiration
dreaded complication of TACE embolizing cystic artery and therefor gallbladder
what is gelfoam good for temporary hemostasis
what are embospheres good for end-organ embolization
mnemonic for internal iliac branches "U. I.O.U. My I-I"
Right-sided varicocele is seen on US…next step? CT to evaluate for abdominal pathology
thrombin dose for pseudoaneurysm tx 100-1000 iu (average dose = 300)
at what size should tx for splenic artery aneurysm be considered. What other factors may warrant tx regardless of size 2.5 cm; Rapidly increasing size, presence in a premenopausal woman, cirrhosis, and symptomatic aneurysm may warrant intervention, regardless of size.
Abx for endograft placement Cefazolin 1 g IV
Abx for percutaneous biopsy NONE (unless transrectal)
Percutaneous vertebroplasty Cefazolin 1 g IV
name procedures for which no abx are needed IVC filter, varicose veins, angio "anything" (graphy, plasty, thrombolysis, stenting) and g tube (unless pull gastronomy technique is used)
mnemonic for things that can be done with INR of 2 Two suits virtually everything Joel could [email protected]&*up
Procedures abbreviated in mnemonic for inr <2 Thoracentesis/paracentesis, Skin biopsy, Venography, Exchanges, Joint aspiration, Central lines, Filters
another way to remember what can be done with inr < 2 anything that can be done with an 18-20 gauge needle (except cholecystography)
Category 3 procedures TIPS, RF ablation, renal biopsy, Nephrectomy, Biliary interventions (creating a new tract)
When to hold ASA and NSAIDs category 3 only, ASA 5 days, NSAIDs 24H
When to stop coumadin 5 days for anything more than a category 1 (C1 =3-5 days)
When and how long to hold unfractionated heparin Only for category 3 — 2-4 hours
When and how long to hold LMWH 2 doses (24 h) for category 3, 1 dose for category 1 and 2
the superior rectal is a branch of the sigmoid artery from the IMA
the arc of riolan bridges the ______ and ________ left colic and middle colic
Middle rectal is a branch of the ant. division internal iliac
inferior rectal is a branch of Internal pudenal (from ant. div internal iliac)
Why isn't stenting done in paget-schroetters? The repetitive trauma usually leads to stent fracture
when to consider embolizing a splenic artery aneurysm over 2 cm, women of child-bearing age, cirrhotics, sx of anemia
bleending end-artery bleed far below the bowel internal pudendal
Most commonly embolized pelvic vessels common iliac and it's anterior division, internal pudendal and the obturator
material to use when embolizing tumor (aside from hepatoma and y90) gelfoam(?)
19 gauge, 3 Fr., 0.038 in are all what in mm?, They are all 1 mm
what size needle would you use with a 3 French catheter? 20G
You are using a 16G needle. What size catheter should you use? 5 French
Describe sizing for a micropuncture set 21G needle and 0.18 inch wire
What size wire do you use with an 18 gauge needle 0.038 inch
What size needle do you use with a 0.035 inch wire 19 gauge
what is the standard wire length 180 cm
what is the "long"wire length 260 cm
Regarding dissection risk, what type of floppy tip catheter is more desirable and why short floppy tip has higher risk of dissection. In genera, its better to have a long floppy tip
what kind of guidewire do you use for acute thrombolysis Bentson (floppy tip)
Lunderquist is only used for Aortic stent grafting
Best wires to try to get into a tight spot hydrophilic or Bentson
what is 1F in inches 0.013"
a beveled needle bends (toward/away from) the bevel away
for an angiography cath with the following specs, what size catheter and wire would you use 4,110,0035 4French (or larger) catheter and 0.035 inch (or smaller) guidewire
advantage of cryoablation you can treat central lesions near collecting system
what type of pt is considered for cryoablation for rcc pant cant tolerate partial nephrectomy and tumor is partially exophytic, posterior and under 3 cm
disadvantage of cryoablation no hemostasis, takes a long time
If you see a left-sided innominate what type of anomaly are you dealing with right arch with mirror image branching (for test purposes)
In double aortic arch, where does the left subclavian usually arise from a diverticulum of kommerell off the descending aorta
In double arch where does the left carotid arise adjacent to the right carotid
How can you tell right arch w/ ab left SC drom couble arch on frontal double arch has deeper claft
median arcuate syndrome is worse with expiration
absolute contraindications to tpa for DVT stroke, TIA, CNS surgery or trauma within 3 weeks
If you come across a varicocele case in a male what should you first ensure is excluded abdominal mass; make sure it is not a RIGHT sided varicocele
Who can get chemical thrombolysis alone for limb ischemia category I and IIa (I-cold leg but o/w normal or IIa lost arterial pulse but there's no motor deficit)
Who gets chemical AND mechanical tx for limb ischemia IIb (motor deficit but still venous pulses)
Who gets surgery for acute limb ischemia category III; it's last stitch effort with a risk of toxic shock syndrome
contraindications to tace portal vein thrombosis.
liver or renal failure.
uncorrectable coagulopathy.
significant arteriovenous shunting of blood through tumour.
TIPs indications refractory bleeding, ascites, hdrothorax, hepatopulmonary or hepatorenal syndrome, decompression of collaterals prior to surgery, budd chiari, portal hypertensive gastropathy or intestinopathy
appropriate position of a HD catheter functional tip in the right atrium
what to use for heavy bleeding post c-section gelfoam
what to use for bleeding panc tumor erosing into the duodenum gelfoam (hemostasis with minimal risk of infarct(?))
where is the preferred site for intrahepatic vascular access during liver biopsy right hepatic vein – provides best tamponade
tx for buerger's no procedure indicated — smoking cesssation
aortic nipple represents prominent intercostal vein in svc obstruction
mechanism of hot quadrate sign porto-systemic shunting from obstructed svc causing recanalization and marked enlargement of of the umbilical vein (bordering the left side of the quadrate — segment IV)
what to administer prior to carcinoid embolization octreotide
antibiotics for trans-enteric bx in immunocompetent person None are required
What balloon size would you use for aorta? Distal SFA? 10mm; 5 mm
General rules for balloon sizing 1-2 cm more than stenosis and 1-2 mm greater diameter than adjacent normal vessel
What to do if you cause distal embo during angioplasty/stenting Attempt to aspirate it
Evar indication Over 5 cm or growing more than 1/2 cm in 1/2 a year
Anatomy needed for EVAR You need 10 cm of non-aneursmal (<3.2 cm) aorta that isn't too tortuous
Particle size for bronchial artery embo >325 um
Grade 4 spleen. What to do Amplatz plug prod to short gastrics
blood vessel in the ligamentum venosum probably replaced LEFT hepatic
How to embolize pulmonary avm vs bronchial artery Don't confuse these. Pulm Avm = coils
Bronchial artery = particles larger than 300 um
Total renal embo…what to use Absolute ethanol
Partial or selective renal embo…what to use Glue
Segmental renal artery aneurysm…what to use Coils
Artery of Ademkowicz arises between T8 and L1
First branch of the SMA inferior pancreaticoduodenal
Name the SMA branches Inf pancreaticoduodenal, middle colic, right colic, ileo-colic
vessel in ligamentum venosum replaced left hepatic from left gastric
How to tell replaced vs proper right hepatic artery (w/o sma in view) proper passes in front of the right portal vein; replaced sneaks behind the main
persistent sciatic is… a continuation of the internal iliac
Svc syndrome in dude from Ohio Fibrosing mediastinitis related to histo
Unexplained HT in a teenager who is found to have RAS NF1- can get aneurysms and stenosis of aorta and large arteries

Mid aortic syndrome – long segment congenital narrowing of suprarenal aorta. HTN is most common presenting symptom.

Name 4 features of mycotic aneurysms pseudoaneurysms, seen in suprarenal aorta, saccular, usually d/t endocarditis
Aortoentric fistulas involve what part of the bowel 3rd and 4th part of duodenum
Name 5 facts about inflammatory aortic aneurysms Usually symptomatic, seen in young men, esr is elevated and smoking is strong risk factor. Also 1/3 of cases have hydronephrosis or renal failure
Elongated linked aorta with no rib notching, collaterals or gradient Pseudocoarctation; they may have aneurysmal dilataion beyond area of narrowing though and still need to be followed
Most common structures involved in thoracic outlet syndrome Anterior scalenes (compressing) and nerves (being compressed)
Causes of True splenic aneurysms HTN, cirrhosis, portal HT, NOT atherosclerosis!!!
Cause of false splenic aneurysm (pseudoaneurysm) Pancreatitis
People with osler Weber die from Stroke or brain abscess
Mcc of a noncompressible varicocele Neoplasm
KTS has ____ flow avms Low
Park Weber has ____ flow avms High
Drainin empyema vs lung abcess You can drain the pleural space (empyema) but you NEVER drain a lung abcess. You'll get a BP fistula
Meaning of continuous bubbles in pleurovac Bronchopeural fistula
Equipment need to place CT for ptx 10F pigtail, 18 G needle and 0.35 amplatz wire
How to minimize ptx risk during lung bx Enter at 90 degrees to pleura, avoid fissures, place pt puncture side down post procedure, no talking or deep breaths for 2 hours
When to tx pulmonary avm Afferent vessel >3 mm
Contraindication to non-tunneled cath Central venous obstruction
A catheter that tracks above the clavicles was placed via the IJ or EJ, if subclavian were accessed it would be at or below the clavicle
Can ports be used for contrast and tpn? Yes
type of ehlers danlos a/w vascular abnormalities iv
ancillary findings of Budd-Chiari enlarged portal vein (>13 mm), inferior right hepatic vein and and caudate, "inside-out" liver enhancement
key findings in Budd-Chiari non-visualization of the hepatic veins and/or IVC, caudate hypertrophy (drinains directly into the ivc)

1.04 key terms keandre

Term Definition
ADVOCACY Word-of-mouth advertising, strategies, and referrals from a business’s current customers to
its potential customers
AFFIRMATION A positive statement about a present or desired strength; something you want to accept,
incorporate, or develop
AFRICAN AMERICAN Black American whose ancestors came from Africa.
AGED PRODUCT A product whose quality has been improved by allowing it to sit for a period of time, e.g.,
lumber, cheese.
ACTUARY A person who assesses risk using statistical analysis and helps design policies to minimize the
cost of that risk
ADAPTABILITY Flexibility; the ability to adjust to changing conditions.
ADJUST To fit; to adapt yourself effectively to a particular set of circumstances
ADVERTISEMENT Any paid form of non -personal presentation of ideas, goods or services
ADVERTISING Any paid form of non -personal presentation of ideas, images, goods, or services

Chap 4 vocab

Term Definition
sanctus holy
deus god
theos god
castus pure
sanctum a private place
sanctify to make holy
sanctions something that forces obedience with a law
sanctuary a place of protection
deity a god
deify to make holy
pantheon a group of gods
polytheistic having several gods in a religion
monotheism the worship of or belief in only one god
castigate to criticize
chastened made less proud
chastise to punish verbally

Social Media

Term Definition
Social media Websites and services that allow users to interact with one another through creating and sharing photos, videos, and text-based communication.
Social media marketer Someone who uses the power of social media to converse with actual and prospective customers, all with the goal of bolstering a company’s brand and selling more product.
Spam Unwanted email solicitations from companies.

Marketing campaign The methods and strategies a company uses to promote a product, service, or event.
Brand recognition The general awareness of a particular brand among the general population.
Brand reputation How a brand is perceived in the marketplace.
Contextual advertising Advertising targeted to online users based upon their self-reported preferences.
Viral marketing In the context of social media marketing, viral marketing is using consumers to share an organization’s message with their friends and family using social media. A band’s music video that is shared widely on Facebook is an example.
Authenticity An attribute of a brand, band, company, etc. that conveys that it is primarily interested in understanding and meeting the real needs of customers rather than making a one-size-fits-all type of sales pitch.

6th Grade Flashcards 6th Grade Flashcards Science

Term Definition
Nonmetal Dull luster, nonconductor, and brittle
Metalloid Semiconductor, malleable or brittle, and shiny or dull luster
Simple Machine Device that makes work easier, often by reducing the amount of effort force needed to move an object.
Inclined Plane A ramp or slope that reduces the force needed to move objects up and down heights; a simple machine.
Force A push or pull that can change the motion of an object, measured with a spring scale in Newtons (N) units.
Moveable Pulley A pulley attached to the object to be moved; reduces the force needed to move the object; a simple machine.
Pulley System A combination of fixed and movable pulleys.
Load The object to be moved using a machine.
Fixed Pulley Attached to a structure and does not move; changes the direction of the effort force used to lift a load; a simple machine.
Spring Scale A tool that measures a pulling force by the tension on a spring; the force is measured in Newton's.
Pulley A device consisting of a wheel over which a rope or chain is pulled in order to lift heavy objects; a simple machine.
Newton Unit of force
Celestial Objects Objects such as planets, moons, and stars that are located in the sky or in space.
System A group of interacting or inter dependent parts forming a complex whole; for example, all the factors or varibles in an environmental the planetary bodies revolving around a star.
Solar System The Sun together with the group of planetsand other celestia bodies that are held by its gravitational attraction and revolve around it.
Gravity The force that causes objects with mass to attract on another.
Orbital Path The gravitational-curved path of an object around a point in space.
Sun The luminous celestial body around which Earth and other planets revolve and from which they recieve heat and light.
Star A ball of gas in space that produces its own light and heat.
Planet Any of the large celestial bodies that revolve around the Sunin the solar system.
Inner Planet Any of the rocky, terrestial planets of Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars, whose orbits are inside the ateriod belt.
Rocky Made of rock.
Terrestrial Earth-like.
Outer Planet Any of the planets Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune, whose orbits lies beyond the asteriod belt.
Asteroids Large and small rocks or metallic masses orbiting the Sun; made up of materials similar to those that formed the planets.
Asteriod Belt The region between the inner and outer plantes where most asteriods orbit around the Sun.
Meteoroid A natural chunk of rock of dust existing outside of Earth's atmosphere.
Meteorites Remains of meteoroids that strike the surface of the Earth or the Moon
Satellite Something that orbits around another object; for example, a moon orbiting a planet or a human-made object orbiting Earth.
Moon A celestial body that revolves around a planet.
Gallilean Moons The four largest and brightest moons of Jupiter, which were discovered by Galileo Galilei: Ganymede, lo, Callisto, and Europa.
Comet A celestial body of ice, dust, and rock with an elongated and elliptical orbit.
Coma Glowing, heated dust and vaporized gas that surrounds the icy comet nucleus as it travels near the Sun; solar winds cause heated gases to stream out of the nucleus, forming a tail, which points away from the Sun.
Meteor A small object that enters Earth's atmosphere from space and burns due to friction, emitting light.
Mass 1) The amount of matter in an object. 2) A body of object
Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation The law that says every object in the universe attracts every other object, and that the force is affected by mass and distance: the greater the mass of an object, the greater the attraction; the farther apart the objects, the weaker the attraction
Gravitational Attraction The force that pulls two objects towards each other; the greater the attraction; the further apart the objects, the weaker the attraction.
Gravity The force that causes objects with mass to attract one another,
Space Exploartion The investigation of physical conditions in space and on stars, planets, and other celestial bodies through the use of satellites, space probes, or spacecraft with human crews.
Rocket An engine that provides thrust directly through the burning of its fuel without requiring the intake of air.
Spacecraft A vehicle or device designed for travel or operation outside Earth's atmosphere.
Space Shuttle A reusable spacecraft designed to transport people and cargo between Earth and space.
Space Probe An unmanned spacecraft designed to explore the solar system and transmit data back to Earth,
Rover A vehicle for exploring the surface of an extraterrestrial body (Such as the Moon and Mars).
Satellite Something that orbits around another object; for example, a moon orbiting a planet or a human-made object orbiting Earth.
Telescope An instrument for viewing or detecting distant objects.
Observatory A building or place given over to or equipped for observation of natural phenomena.
International Space Station An orbiting space satellite, construction of which began in 2001 with the cooperation of 16 nations; used for scientific and space research.
Galileo Galilei The father of modern science; made improvements to the telescope and discovered the four largest moons of Jupiter, among many other scientific accomplixhment.
Astronauts A person trained to be part of a spacecraft.
NASA National Aeronautics and Space Administration; the American governmental agency dedicated to space exploration.
Astornaut A person trained to be part of a spacecraft crew.
Space Walk An activity in which an astornaut moves around and does work outside a spacecraft while in space.
Space Suit A complex system of garments that allow astronauts to work safely outside their spacecraft.
Vaccum A volume of space mostly empty of matter, such as oxygen to breathe.
Micrometeoroids Tiny meteoroids traveling fast enough to damage spacecraft.
Microgravity The almost complete absence of gravity that can only be found in space.
Atmosphere The entire mass of air that surrounds Earth, made up of 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and trace amounts of other gases.
Ozone Layer Gas in Earth's atmosphere that absorbs most of the damaging high-energy ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.
Ultraviolet Radiation A portion of the electromagnetic spectrum emitted by the Sun; can cause tanning, sun burning, and skin cancers.
Solar Winds A continuous stream of charged particles from the Sun, with variations in the stream causing beautiful aurorae displays (Northern lights), as well as geomagnetic storms that knock out power grids on Earth.
Earth's Magnetic Field Magnetic lines of force from Earth's polar north and south, acting like a giant magnet.
Magnetosphere An area that deflects and traps harmful particles; resulting from an interaction of Earth's magnetic field with solar "wind" (charged plasma) streaming from the Sun.
Crust The thin, solid outermost layer of Earth; made of less dense silicates and is either continental (landmasses) or oceanic (ocean floors)
Inner Core The sphere of solid nickel and iron and the center of Earth; surrounded by the liquid outer
Outer Core The outer layer of Eath's core; surrounds the inner core and is made of liquid nickel and iron.
Mantle The solid layer of Earth between the crust and the core; made of dense silicates
Asthenosphere The solidlayer with platicity in the upper mantle that is located just below the lithosphere; lithospheric plates "float" and move on this layer
Lithosphere The cool, rigid, outermost layer of the Earth that consists of the crust and the uppermost part of the mantle; broken into pieces or segements called plates.
Chemical Composition The types, quantities, and arrangmnets of elements that make up a substance
Plasticity A characteristic of the material in the asthenosphere; existing in a solid state yet having the ability to flow without being a liquid.
Physical Properties Measureable characteristics that describe the physical state of something, including mass, magnetism, temperature, density, shape, volume, and conductivity
Temperature A measure of the amount of heat energy
States of Matter Distinct forms of matter known in everyday experience: solid, liquid, and gas; also referred to as phases of matter.
Pressure Force exerted on matter through contact with other matter; affects melting and boiling points
Density The amount of matter in a given space or volume; it is a relationship between mass and volume. Less dense matter will form layers above dense matters.
Earth's Layers The divisions of the composition of Earth determined by either chemical composition or by the physical state of matter.
Tectonic Plates Huge pieces of lithosphere that slowly move on the asthenosphere and consists of the crust and the rigid, uppermost part of the mantle.
North American Plate A tectonic plate division of the lithosphere that includes the continental crust of Greenland, North America, Siberia, and the surrrounding oceanic crust.
Eurasian Plates A tectonic plate division of the lithosphere, including most of the landmasses of Europe and Asia.
African Plate A tectonic plate division of the lithosphere that includes the continental crust of Africa and the surrounding oceanic crust.
South American Plate A tectonic plate division of the lithosphere that includes the continental crust of South America and the oceanic crust extending to the Mid-Atlantic ridge.
Pacific Plate A tectonic plate division of the lithosphere that is composed entirely of oceanic crust and lies beneath the Pacific Ocean.
Indo-Australian A tectonic plate division of the lithosphere that includes the continental crust of India and Australia and the surrounding oceanic crust.
Crustal Rock Material Crust can be either oceanic, which is thin and sense, or continental, which is thick and less dense.
Antartic Plate A tectonic plate division of the lithosphere that includes the continental crust of Antartica and the surrounding oceanic crust.
Density of Plates The amount of matter in a given space or volume; oceanic crust is thinner, but denser than continental crust.
Plate Bounday The place where two different plates have contact.
Convergent Boundary Occurs when two tectonic plates move toward each other and collide.
Subduction The process in which a denser plate is pushed downwar beneath a less dense plate when plates coerage; occurs at continental to oceanic boundaries and oceanic to oceanic boundaries.
Volcanic Eruptions Events in which molten rock spews out from the mantle to the surface of Earth as ash, lava, and gases; major geological events that occur when a dense plate subducts below a less dense plate,
Mountain Building Major geological event that occurs when continental plates of equal density converge, resulting in mountain chains.
Divergent Boundary Occurs when two tectonic plates move away freom each other.
Spreading Ridges Ridges formed from new crustal material at diverging oceanic plate boundaries.
Earthquakes Major geological events that occur when plates shift suddenly and release stored energy; frequent occurrences along all types of plate boundaries.
Ocean Basin An area of oceanic crust covered by seawater and surrounded by areas of continental crust.
Transform Boudary Occurs when two tectonic plates slide past each other.
Cementation Occurs when sediments stick together and turn into rock.
Rock Cycle Earth's rocks changefrom one type into anotherover time due to various Earth processes. Changes occur in mineral composition and physical sturctures.
Compaction Occurs when rock particles or sediments are pressed together or packed downby gravity and the pressure of overlying rock layers.
Sedimentary Rock Sedimentary rock forms when particles of other rocks are deposited in llayers and are compacted (crushed together), and cemented (binding of the sediments)
Metamorphic Rock Metamorphic rock is formed deep underground where heat and pressure cause existing rocks to be changed in both mineral composition and structural characteristics.
Heat and Pressure Changing variables due to the weight of overlying rocks, causing changes to rock characteristics and mineral composition, thus forming metamorphic rocks.
Igneous Rock Igneous rock is formed when lava or magma cools and solidifies. Lava cools quickly and forms rocks with small crystals, while magma cools more slowly and forms rocks with larger crystals.
Mineral Composition The unique combination of solid elements and compounds that make up a mineral.
Earth's Evolution The process that formed and changed the Earth from its beginning to the present.
Lava Molten rock or magma that has reached Earth's surface by volcanic action; characterized by small crystals due to rapid cooling on Earth's surface.
Magma Melted or molten rock material beneath Earth's surface; cools slowly to form rocks with larger crystals.
Mineral A naturally formed, inorganic solid that has a specific chemical formula and repeating three- dimensional structure.
Luster The way the surface of a mineral reflects light; either metallic or non-metallic such as silky, dull, glassy, or resinous.
Streak The color of a mineral in powdered form.
Hardness A measure of scratch resistance of various minerals; when the ability of harder minerals to scratch softer minerals is used for identification.
Malleability The ability of something to be reshaped without breaking
Conductivity The ability of a substance to transfer heat or electrical energy.
Magnetic Attraction Magnetic force exerted by oppositely charged particles, tending to draw or hold the particles together.
Inorganic Matter that does not contain carbon.
Mineral Crystal Geometric shape of a mineral that reflects its internal crystalline arrangement of atoms.
Mohs Hardness Scale A set of ten minerals used as a standard of hardness against which an unknown mineral's hardness is compared.
Volume The amount of space inside a three-dimensional figure.
Diameter The distance across a circle through its center.
Pi The ratio of the circumference to the diameter of a circle: appoximately 3.14 or 22/7
Formula An equation that shows the relationship among certain quantities.
Area The number of square units covering a surface of a two-dimensional figure.
Circumference The distance around a circle or its perimeter.
Radius The distance from the center of a circle to the edge.
Metal Malleable, shiny luster, and a conductor.


Question Answer
Concave side scoliosis Decreased breath sounds, spinous processes, hollow, ribs rotated ant., Shoulder down,
Convex side scoliosis Ribs rotated posteriorly, vertebral body rotated towards, high shoulder
Coupled motion of Cx and T1-T5 I/L side bending and rotation
Coupled motion of Lx and T6-T12 I/L bending with C/L rotation
Spinal rotation C/L facet approximation, IV opening
I/L facet opening, IV foramen closing
X-rays A-P & P-A
Wrist, SI and chest P-A, rest all A-P
Valsalva maneuver Increased SBP & DBP, reduced venous return, increased venous pressure
Isometric contraction Increased HR & SBP & DBP
Total cholesterol <200mg/dl
LDL <160mg/dl
HDL >40mg/dl
Triglycerides <150mg/dl
Waist circumference <40 in M; <35 in W
S3 heart sound Indicates LVF
Just after S2
S4 heart sound Indicates CAD, MI, AS, chronic HTN
Before S1
Right to left leads I, aVR, aVF
Sup to inf leads II, III,aVF
Hyperkalemia ECG: peaked T wave (classic sign)
Wide QRS
flat P wave
Hypokalemia ECG: Flat T wave, present U wave
Hypercalcemia ECG: short QT, wide QRS
Hypocalcemia Prolonged QT
Hypothermia STE, bradycardia
Digitalis STD, short QT, flat Tw
Quinidine (anti-arrhythmic)
Long QRS, long QT, flat Tw
Prothrombin time 11-15 sec
WBC 4000-10,800 cells/mm?
RBC 4-6 10000000
Hematocrit M: 45-52%
F: 37-48%
Diabetes ETT Submaximal. Arm ergometry if PAD /neuropathy present
C/I to compression therapy ABI <0.8; active cellulitis or infection















Patient experiencing discomfort with ES Change intensity or change pulse duration
WC dimensions
Doorway clearance
Hallway clearance
High forward reach
Low forward reach
Side reach
Toilet seat height
Horizontal grab bars
Counter depth
Step height
Ramp ratio
Switches & outlets
W: 24-26"
L: 42-43"
Handle to floor: 36"; armrest to floor: 29-30"
DC: 32"
HC: 36"
HFR: 48"
LFR: 15"
SR: 24"
TSH: 17-19"
HGB: 33-36"
CT: <31"
CD: >24"
SH: 7-9"
RR: 1:12 ( slope:rise)
HR: 34-38"
S: 36-48"; O: 18"

Yogaworks Yoga Yogaworks Exam

Question Answer
List two asana points for Adho Mukha Svanasana that relate to the 3rd platform. a. Draw the shoulders away from the ears
b. Draw the bottom tip of the shoulder blades into the nipple line
Define “counter action”. A pair of actions that must be done simultaneously in order to keep the body balanced.
Name 3 general actions that are common to all platforms and must be performed at all times. a. Align
b. Stabilize
c. Elongate
List 4 contraindications for inversions. a. Non-medicated high blood pressure
b. Neck, shoulder, wrist problems
c. History of stroke
d. Serious osteoporosis
e. Pregnancy
f. First few days of menstruation
g. Fear
h. Eye problems
Name a hinge joint and the plane of movement available at this joint. Ankle, knee. Movements are in the sagittal plane.
The hamstrings _ the legs at the knees, and they _ the legs at the hips. The hamstrings _FLEX_ the legs at the knees, and they _EXTEND_ the legs at the hips.
Define “tendonitis”. The inflammation of tendons
In Tadasana, if you root down from all 4 corners of your feet, what rebounds from there? Knees, ankles
Biceps _ the arms at the _. Biceps _FLEX_ the arms at the _ELBOW_.
What muscle group in the lower body needs to be warmed up Parsvottanasana? Hamstrings
For Adho Mukha Svanasana, give 2 asana points for the arms. a. Firm the biceps
b. Engage the triceps
Define “sukham”. Ease or comfort
For Sirsasana, name 3 prep poses. a. Dolphin
b. AMS
c. Salamba Sarvangasana
d. Uttanasana
For Chaturanga Dandasana, name an area of the body that can be at risk if the pose is done incorrectly. a. Shoulders
b. Wrists
Define “prep poses”. Poses that address the component parts in order to prepare the body for difficult or challenging poses.
In Sanskrit, according to Patanjali, what is the root cause for suffering? Avidya
Name 2 counter poses for Sirsasana. a. Salamba Sarvangasana
b. Setu Badha Sarvangasana
c. Any pose that brings the body to sit upright on the heels
What muscle group in the lower body must be warmed up to prepare for Virabhadrasana 1? Hip flexors
In Tadasana, name the asana points for the 2nd platform, and state what area of the body they serve to protect. a. Spin the inner thighs in
b. Lengthen sitting bones to heels
These protect the lower back
Define “complimentary action”. A pair of actions that when performed simultaneously will help the body to move in one direction.
A complimentary action deepens and reinforces a specific action or instructions.
True or false? A restorative sequence consists of only forward bends. False
In Vashistasana, if I root down through my bottom hand, what rebounds up? The top hand
Where should the yoga teacher stand in order to help someone in a hand stand? The teacher should stand between the student and the wall.
Which pose is not appropriate for a beginner: plank, Virabhadrasana 2, Eka Pada Apanasana, Sirsasana or Samasthiti? Sirsasana
Are the Gunas part of Purusha or Prakriti? Prakriti
What is the best and most accessible pose to start a beginner’s level class? Savasana
In English, name 5 Vrittis a. Right knowledge
b. Misconception
c. Verbal Delusion
d. Sleep
e. Memory
Name 2 poses you can use to assess if a student is ready for Sirsasana. What are you looking for in these poses? a. AMS
b. Dolphin
We are looking for openness / flexibility in the thoracic spine and shoulders. These need to be open enough for the upper arms to be alongside the ears.
In Prasarita Padottanasana, name the risk areas in the body if the pose is done incorrectly. b. Lower back
c. Hamstrings
d. Ankles
For Sirsasana, list 2 asana points for the foundations positions. a. Fingers are interlaced
b. Elbows are shoulder-width apart
c. Crown of the head is on the floor
d. Back of the head touches the padding of the thumbs
e. Chin is parallel to the floor
For Urdhva Dhanurasana, name 1 transition pose. a. Happy baby pose
b. Apanasana
c. Simple twist
d. Any pose where the spine is neutralized and supported
Give 3 prep poses for Urdhva Dhanurasana. a. Setu Bandha Sarvangasana
b. Bhujangasana
c. Virasana
d. AMS
e. Salabhasana
In English and Sanskrit, state the 2nd Sutra of the 1st Pada. “Yoga Citta Vrtti Nirodhah” – the restraint of the modifications of the mind-stuff is Yoga
In Virabhadrasana 1, our actions are that we are working towards neutral in the transverse plane. But most people still can’t bring their pelvis to neutral, even though they try. Why is this so? Their hip flexors are tight.
Define “strain”. A tear in a muscle or tendon.
In Ardha Chandrasana, what is the position of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? The pelvis is neutral in the sagittal plane.
In Ardho Mukha Svanasana, list asana points for the pelvic girdle and the legs. a. Draw pelvis back away from shoulders and off legs
b. Reach tailbone away from torso, neither arching nor rounding the lower back
c. Press thigh bones back
d. Straighten legs engaging the quads
e. Reach back evenly through inner & outer thighs
Define “simple action” It is a beneficial and general verbal cue for an asana. It will not throw the body out of equilibrium, nor will it need another action to bring the body back into a balance.
In Tadasana, what are the asana points for the 1st platform? a. Press down evenly through 4 corners of the feet
b. Spread the toes
c. Lift inner archers
d. Firm outer ankles in and up
Give an example of a ball and socket joint, and list the movements available for this joint. Shoulder / hip. It moves in all three planes, sagittal, coronal, and transverse.
In handstand (Sirsasana), if the forearms rebound up, what is rooted? The hands
What action does the quadriceps do to the knees? It extends the knees
The triceps _ the arms at the _. The triceps _EXTEND_ the arms at the _ELBOW_.
What is the universal therapeutic advice you can give to someone suffering from an injury? a. Rest
b. Ice
c. Compression
d. Elevation
In Adho Mukha Svanasana, give asana points for the hands. a. Hands are shoulder width-apart
b. Wrists crease are parallel to the front edge of the mat
c. Press down through the entire palms
d. Spread fingers
Name a transitional pose for Sirsasana. a. Balasana
b. AMS
True or false? The Yoga Sutras was compiled in the Veda Period. False – in Classic period.
In English and in Sanskrit, name and define the 8 limbs of Ashtanga Yoga. a. Yama: moral restraints
b. Niyama: personal observances
c. Asana: physical postures
d. Pranayama: the use of breath
e. Pratyahara: withdrawal of stress
f. Dharana: one-point concentration
g. Dhyana: meditation
h. Samadhi: union with the Divine
List 4 benefits of Salamba Sarvangasana (Queen of asanas). a. Cooling / calming to the nervous system
b. Balances lymphatic and endocrine systems
c. Reduces fluid retention in the legs and feet
d. Improves circulation
What are “abhyasa” and “vairagya”? Abhyasa means constant spiritual practice over a long period of time.
Vairagya means non-attachment.
Define “transitional pose”. It is a pose that neutralizes the body. It enables a gradual shift to move into the counter pose.
In a lower level YogaWorks class, why do we teach external poses before asymmetrical
neutral poses?
Externals open up the hip flexors, thus the sequence is from the simple to complex.
Name the 3 platform of the body. a. Feet and ankles
b. Pelvic girdle (pelvis)
c. Shoulder girdle
Define “Avidya”. Avidya is ignorance of who we truly are or a misunderstanding of the true nature of reality which connects everything in the universe.
In Tadasana, what are the asana points for the 3rd platform? What do they protect? a. Lift the sternum away from the navel
b. Spread across the collarbones
c. Release the shoulders away from the ears
d. Press the shoulder blades into the chest while keeping the front ribs soft
They protect the neck.
True or false? “OM” has 4 syllables: A, U, M, and silence. True
Name a risk area in the body if Parivrtta Trikonasana is done incorrectly. The lower back
In Sanskrit and in English, define the gunas. The gunas are 3 qualities, tendencies or modes of operation that constitute Prakriti: rajas, tamas, sattva.
What are the characteristics of Rajas? Active, dynamic, energetic, unstable, fickle. Examples: a river, Mana (lower mind), anger
What are the characteristics of Tamas? Inert, slow, heavy, dark, solid, stable, firm, concealing. Examples: a mountain, the human body, sorrow.
What are the characteristics of Sattva? Pure, luminous, light, transparent, revealing. Examples: a sky, Buddhi (the higher mind),
True or false? Twists are beneficial to pregnant women in the 3rd trimester. False
In English and in Sanskrit, state the 1st Sutra of the 1st Pada? “Atha Yoga anusasanam” now the exposition of yoga is being made
What are the Yamas? a. Ahimsa: non-violence
b. Satya: the truth
c. Asteya: non-stealing
d. Brahmacharya: continence
e. Asparigraha: non-coveting
What are the Niyamas? a. Saucha: cleanliness
b. Samtosha: contentment
c. Tapas: heat, perseverance
d. Svadhyaya: study of one’s self
e. Ishvara Pranidhana (surrender to god)
What is Ashtanga Yoga? Ashtanga yoga is an intense, flowing style in which the same poses are always done in the same order. This style was created by Sri K. Pattabhi Jois.
What category of poses is safest to warm the body? Surya Namaskara
In English and Sanskrit, state the 3rd Sutra os the 1st Pada. “Tada drashtuh svarupe avasthanam” Then the Seer abides in Itself, resting in its own True Nature, which is called Self-realization.
What is a risk factor in Baddha Konasana? a. Lower back
b. Knees
c. Groins
What are the counter poses for Urdhva Dhanurasana? a. Paschimottanasana (seated forward bend)
b. Supta padangusthasana
c. Dandasana
d. Uttanasana
For Sirsasana, what are the asana points for the 1st platform? a. Lift the sternum away from the navel
b. Spread across the collarbones
c. Release the shoulders down from the ears
d. Press the shoulder blades into the chest while keeping the front ribs soft
What does the psoas muscle do? Flex the hips (the muscles connect the lumbar vertebrae to the femur)
For Virabhadrasana 1, what is the action and the positions of the back leg? Position: slight external rotation
Action: effort toward neutral via internal rotation
In Sanskrit and in English, state the 5 kleshas. a. Avidya: ignorance
b. Asmita: ego
c. Raga: attachment
d. Dvesa: aversion
e. Abhinivesha: clinging to bodily life / fear of death
True or false? YogaWorks teaches students to stack the hips in Ardha Chandrasana. False
Ligaments link _ to _ Ligaments link _BONE_ to _BONE_
Tendons attach _ to _ Tendons attach _MUSCLE_ to _BONE_
What does Cartilage do? The ends of some bones are lined with cartilage for smooth gliding at the places where bones intersect.
What is the maximum number of poses the teacher should link together? 3 poses, but never in the beginner level
The easiest postures are _ rotated _ postures. The easiest postures are _NEUTRALLY_ rotated _SYMMETRICAL_ postures.
What are the 4 states of OM? A, U, M and silence (the blissful state)
What is RSI? Repetitive Stress Injury
What are Component Parts? Parts of the body that need to be educated/warmed in preparation for a more challenging pose.
Gentle twists are good _ poses for both forward and back bends. Gentle twists are good _TRANSITIONAL_ poses for both forward and back bends.
Name a condyloid joint and the plane it moves in. Knee, knuckles. Movement in sagittal and transverse plane.
Quadriceps _ the knee. Quadriceps _EXTEND_ the knee.
Hamstrings _ the knee. Hamstrings _FLEX_ the knee.
Name one asana where the shoulder joint are in flexion. Utthita Hastasana in Tadasana
Name one asana where the shoulder joint is in extension. Ustrasana
Name one prime mover muscle that is part of the shoulder joint? Deltoid, Pectoralis Major, Latissimus
Name two muscles that stabilize the scapula. Rhomboid, trapezius
What is the ASIS? Anterior Superior Iliac Spine
What is the main function of the rotator cuff? Holds the humerus in the shoulder socket, stabilizes the shoulder joint
Where are the SITS muscles located? In the rotator cuff
On the inhale the diaphragm _ & _ On the inhale the diaphragm _CONTRACTS, FLATTENS_
On the exhale the diaphragm _ & _ On the exhale the diaphragm _RELAXES, MOVES UP_
When you inhale pressure in the lungs is _, when you exhale pressure is _ When you inhale pressure in the lungs is _LOW_, when you exhale pressure is _HIGH_
You should _ the spine before you twist. You should _ELONGATE_ the spine before you twist.
In twists _ levers should be used before _ levers. In twists _INTERNAL_ levers should be used before _EXTERNAL_ levers.
YogaWorks says that breath should be _ but _ YogaWorks says that breath should be _AUDIBLE_ but _NOT HEARD ACROSS THE ROOM_
Yoga stimulates the _ nervous system. Yoga stimulates the _PARASYMPATHETIC_ nervous system.
List at least 5 benefits for Surya Namaskara a. Warms up the body
b. Energizing
c. Preps for later poses
d. Connects body with breath
e. Brings focus inward
f. Increases flexibility / strength
g. Increases circulation
h. Cardiovascular
List benefits for inversions. a. Increases brain function
b. Elevates the mood
c. Helps the lymph system
d. Improve digestion
e. Strengthens the upper body
f. Improves balance and coordination
g. Improves circulation
h. Enhances body awareness
For Salabhasana and Ustrasana, list 3 common teaching points for the pelvis. a. Buttocks toward the heels
b. Firm hips in
c. Frontal hips lift
d. Thighs released back
What are 6 sections of YogaWorks sequencing? a. Opening
b. Warm up/Sun Salutations
c. Standing poses
d. Peak pose
e. Cool down
f. Savasana
Where is the weight in the foot placed in a straight leg pose? Ball of the foot / big toe
Where is the weight in the foot in the bent leg pose? The centre of the heel
What are the 3 normal curves of the spine? a. Cervical curve (lordotic curve)
b. Thoracic curve (kyphotic curve)
c. Lumbar curve (lordotic curve)
In AMS the position of the forearm is pronated / supinated and the wrist is flexed / extended. In AMS the position of the forearm is pronated and the wrist is extended.
The resting and digesting response is regulated by what nervous system? Parasympathetic nervous system
The flight or fight response is regulated by what nervous system? Sympathetic nervous system
How can a yoga instructor induce the parasympathetic nervous system? a. Focus breathing
b. Focus exercise / set intention
c. Create a safe environment
d. Repetition that is calming
Define “prakriti”. Praktiti is the seen / a nature / what affects us.
What are the negative sides of the 3 gunas? a. Sattva: airy, afflicted
b. Raga: head strong, agitated
c. Tamas: heavy, lethargic, dull
What quality is the balance between Ragas and Tamas? Sattva
What are the 3 anatomical planes of the body and what are the general actions of each plane? Sagittal – extension/flexion
Coronal – Abduction/Adduction
Transverse – rotational
What are bones? Hard, whitish tissue making up the skeleton, the central supporting structure of the body.
What is cartilage? Cartilage is a structural component of the body, it is a firm tissue but is softer and more flexible than a bone. It is connective tissue found in many areas e.g. the ears, the nose, joints between bones like the elbows, knees, etc.
What are ligaments? Ligaments are dense, fibrous rope-like bands.
What are tendons? Tendons are relatively inelastic taut bands of tissue branching off the ends of muscles.
How can you tell the difference between structural and functional pronation when viewing students’ feet? Pronated foot, weight is biased toward the inner foot & when corrected, the arch lifts up somewhat. This is functional pronation. With flat feet, even when weight is ideally distributed across the feet, the arch is still low. This is structural pronation.
When did yoga begin, the Vedic or Classic period? The Vedic period.
Explain why linking 5 poses or more on one side can cause injury. Because the fatigue or overwork can cause repetitive stress injury (RSI).
Describe the lower thoracic wheel. Soften the front ribs toward the hip points and lift the back ribs and away from the waist.
Describe the upper thoracic wheel. Lift the sternum away from the navel and draw the shoulder blades away from the ears.
Describe the pelvic wheel. Lift the frontal hip bones toward the chest and lengthen the buttock flesh toward the back of the knees.
How do I know if someone has a carrying angle and what do you instruct them to do? You will see it from the side where their arms are about parallel to the floor. Lift forearms engage triceps and pull in. Use blocks.
How do I know if someone has overextended elbows and what do you instruct them to do? Look from the front where the arms will not be straight. Microbend the elbows, engage muscles. Use strap.
What are the four abdominal muscles in order from external to internal? Rectus Abdominis
External Obliques
Internal Obliques
Transverse Abdominis
What are the 3 Steps to go up into Sirsasana? Knees to chest
Feet spiral up together
Knees parallel to floor
What are external and internal levers? External levers are used when one body part is used to pull toward another body part to encourage a deeper pose.

Internal levers use deep core muscles.

What is Avidya? The root of all obstacles
What does Sthira Sukham Asanam mean? Strong happy seat
What are the 3 Gunas and describe them? Sattva means wisdom, harmony, truth, lightness
Rajas means effort, determination, movement
Tamas means inertia, density, lethargy, unmoving
What is Pratipaksha Bhavanam? A method that helps us catch these destructive and distracting thoughts & redirect our minds back toward the yogic path. This is done by actively cultivating thoughts of the opposite nature when a destructive thought arises.
What is Pratyahara? Withdrawal of the senses
What is Samadhi? Absorption. Union with the Divine
What is Isvara Pranidhana? Devotion or surrender to God.
What are 5 contraindicated asanas in pregnancy? Belly Poses
Back or right side-lying poses
Deep backbends
Extreme abs
Deep squats
What is the difference between a sprain and strain? A strain is a tear to a muscle; a sprain is a tear to a ligament.
How do you assist someone up into Adho Mukha Vrksasana? Stand behind them at the wall, head to the left or right of them (not in between) and put your hands on their hip bones to help bring them up. Keep your own hips against the wall.
What kind of twist is okay for pregnant women? Open twists:-
Bharadvajasana (both knees on the side), Marichyasana 0, Marichyasana 3.
Name the 2 hinge joints in the body? Ankle
Name the 2 condyloid joints in the body? Knee, knuckles where the palm meets the fingers
Name the 2 ball and socket joints in the body? Hip and shoulder
What are the 2 main hip extensor muscles? Gluteus maximus
Which muscle is a hip extensor as well as a very strong hip external rotator? Gluteus maximus
Which areas of the body are at risk if we repeatedly sit in Dandasana and forward bends in without proper support under the hips and without proper actions in the body? Lower back
Spinal disks
Define carrying angle. Angle of 5-15% from the side of the body.
Define a hyperextended elbow. The elbows bend normally but when they straighten they go beyond straight.
What are the structural variations of the feet? Flat feet and high arches
What are the functional variations of the feet? Pronation and supination
What are the structural variations of the knees? Bow legs and knock knees
What are the functional variations of the knees? Hyperextension

Science Chapter 2 Lesson 2.1 States of Matter

Term Definition
solid A state of matter that has a definite shape and a definite volume.
crystalline solid A solid that is made up of crystals in which particles are arranged in a regular, repeating patter.
amorphous solid A solid made up of particles that are not arranged in a regular pattern.
liquid A state of matter that has no definite shape but has a definite volume.
fluid Any substance that can flow.
surface tension The result of an inward pull among the molecules of a liquid that brings the molecules on the surface closer together.
viscosity A liquids resistance to flowing.
gas A state of matter with no definite shape or volume.
pressure The force pushing on a surface divided by the area of that surface.